I'm with Will. As the scenario is written, the third out is at first
by the BR. That would negate all runs.

And make one manager very unhappy.

Rita

--- In WRLLUmpires@yahoogroups.com, "Charlie" <rllumps@...> wrote:
>
> Following is a question from a quiz that was forwarded to me by a
> fellow umpire. He had attended a weekend clinic put on by a very
> respected individual, a former professional umpire, and this
question
> was on one of the quizzes they were given.
>
> The answer to this question is that 1 run counts. When pressed on
> how/why the answer is what it is, no adequate explanation could be
> given other than, "That's what he said." My question for everyone
> here is how is that possible given how the question is written?
>
> And the question is:
> Runners of First and Second… one out. The batter hits a Home run.
> R1 missed third and BR missed First. The defensive team properly
> appeals at Third then First.
>
>
> After seeing the answer my initial thought was that there must be
> another typo in the question. I'm thinking that because the
question
> starts out, "Runners of" not "Runners on" so I thought it possible
> that perhaps when my fellow umpire typed this up into a Word
document
> that perhaps he got the sequence of appeals switched around. He
> claims he typed it up as it was written on the original quiz. I
> still have doubts on that.
>
> So, according to the question above (as written) does 1 run score
and
> if so, how and by what rule?
>
> Happy New Year.
>